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#1 |
"murat"
May 2020
turkey
23·32 Posts |
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is it possible ( 2 ^ n ) +1 and ( 2 ) ^ ( n + 1 ) + 1 can be prime
Last fiddled with by drmurat on 2020-07-08 at 14:46 |
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#2 |
"Mark"
Apr 2003
Between here and the
140548 Posts |
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#3 |
"murat"
May 2020
turkey
23·32 Posts |
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#4 |
Sep 2002
Database er0rr
1101110011102 Posts |
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#5 |
"murat"
May 2020
turkey
23×32 Posts |
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#6 |
Sep 2002
Database er0rr
2·3·19·31 Posts |
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For n > 1, N = 2^n +1 has to be a generalized Fermat prime with b=2 i.e 2^(2^a)+1, but 2^a+1 can never be a power of 2
![]() Last fiddled with by paulunderwood on 2020-07-08 at 16:08 |
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#7 |
Nov 2016
22·691 Posts |
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#8 |
"murat"
May 2020
turkey
1108 Posts |
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#9 |
"murat"
May 2020
turkey
23·32 Posts |
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yes it is impossible . one of rhem is diveded by 3 all the time
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#10 | |
"Sam"
Nov 2016
2×163 Posts |
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Cunningham Chain of the second kind
Quote:
Last fiddled with by carpetpool on 2020-07-08 at 19:22 |
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#11 | |
"murat"
May 2020
turkey
23×32 Posts |
![]() Quote:
(2^n) * (2^ (2n) + 1) *(2^ (2n+1) + 1) gives perfect number but it is impossible . one of them is devided by 3 |
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