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#1 |
Apr 2014
Marlow, UK
708 Posts |
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If I know
m <= n p <= n/2 Last fiddled with by mickfrancis on 2016-08-15 at 09:44 Reason: (mod n) should be (mod m), also added constraints |
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#2 |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
203008 Posts |
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I don't know but is their ratio ((n+p)!*(2p)!)/(n!*p!) easily calculated mod m ? if so it's a modular multiply away. doh that ratio ( if I've done the math correctly to get it is (2p)! * (n+p choose p) ) okay I see an error I did I forgot to flip one of the fractions in their ratio when multiplying. (n+p)!/(((n+p)-(2p))!2p!) /( n!/((n-p)!p!)) = (n+p)!/(((n-p)!2p!) /( n!/((n-p)!p!)) =((n+p)!/(2p!)) /( n!/(p!)) = ((n+p)!p!)/((2p)!n!) doh!!!
Last fiddled with by science_man_88 on 2016-08-15 at 12:18 |
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#3 | |
Apr 2014
Marlow, UK
23·7 Posts |
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#4 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26·131 Posts |
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I think there's a simpler form of that product division as in each case of i there's n/(p+i) +(1/(p/i+1)) no ? and this can be put into fractional form of ((n+1)*(p+i))/((p^2+p*i)/i+(p+i)) I think. doh I'm an idiot not sure why I thought it could be done like that for some reason. Last fiddled with by science_man_88 on 2016-08-15 at 12:43 |
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#5 | |
Apr 2014
Marlow, UK
23×7 Posts |
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