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#1 |
"Sam"
Nov 2016
14616 Posts |
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Help, comments, suggestions appreciated.
![]() For three integers p, q, r such that gcd(p, q) = 1, gcd(r, q) = 1, let d = pr. (p+q)*(q+d) - pq = x (q+d)*q - p*(p+q) = y Prove that r*x-q-d = y |
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#2 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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and y=q^2+q(d)-p^2-p(q) therefore y+q+d = q^2+q(d)-p^2+p(q)+q+d = (q+1+p)(q)+(q+1)(d)-p^2 r(x) = (q+1+p)(q)+(q+1)(d)-p^2 = d^2+r(q^2)+r(q)(d) anyways for now I'm bored I guess. |
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#3 | |
"Serge"
Mar 2008
Phi(4,2^7658614+1)/2
2·4,637 Posts |
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Take p,q,r = 2,5,3 d = p*r = 6 x=(p+q)*(q+d) - p*q = 67 y=(q+d)*q - p*(p+q) = 41 r*x-q-d = 190 |
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#4 | |
"Sam"
Nov 2016
2×163 Posts |
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Pairs that work (but unproven): p, 2p+1, 2 2,5,2 7*9 - 2*5 = 53 9*5 - 2*7 = 31 2*31-5-4 = 53 3,7,2 10*13 - 3*7 = 109 13*7 - 3*10 = 61 2*61-7-6 = 109 4,9,2 13*17 - 4*9 = 185 17*9 - 4*13 = 101 2*101-9-8 = 185 I don't want to go ahead making a statement saying that p, pr+1, r will always work because I am not sure of it's certainty. p = p q = pr+1 r = r and then if d = pr x=(p+q)*(q+d) - p*q y=(q+d)*q - p*(p+q) is r*y-q-d = x always true? Last fiddled with by carpetpool on 2017-02-03 at 05:08 |
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#5 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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and y= (pr+1+pr)*(pr+1) - p*(p+(pr+1)) using pr=d we simplify to (d+1+d)*(d+1)+p*(p+d+1) = d^2+d+d+1+d^2+d+p^2+pd+p = 2d^2+3d+1+p^2+pd+p so your claim is that : 2*r*d^2+(3r+d)*d +r - (2*d+1) = 2d^2+3d+1+p^2+pd+p (2*r+1)*d^2+(3r-2)*d+r-1 = 2d^2+3d+1+p^2+pd+p aka (2*r+1)*d^2+(3r-2)*d+r-1 - (2d^2+3d+1+p^2+pd+p) =0 (2r-1)*d^2+(3r-p-2)*d+r-2-p^2 -p =0 now it would be solving for p,d, and r to find a solution but I'm not that advanced. Last fiddled with by science_man_88 on 2017-02-03 at 12:49 |
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