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#1 |
May 2016
A216 Posts |
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#2 |
Aug 2006
597410 Posts |
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Up to 1000 this fails for 1, 6, 15, 66, 85, 91, 186, 341, 435, 451, 561, 645, 703, and 946.
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#3 | |
Feb 2017
Nowhere
434310 Posts |
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See the Wikipedia page on the Chinese hypothesis. This article says that
Quote:
2m == 2 (mod m), so I guess these are also prime. Exercise: If 2n == 2 (mod n), then 22n-1 == 2 (mod n) |
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#4 | |
May 2016
2×34 Posts |
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%3 = [ 2 1] [ 23 1] [ 31 1] [151 1] (15:54) gp > factor(2568226) %4 = [ 2 1] [ 23 1] [ 31 1] [1801 1] (15:54) gp > 143742226 %5 = 143742226 (15:54) gp > factor(%5) %6 = [ 2 1] [ 23 1] [ 31 1] [100801 1] |
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#5 |
Feb 2017
Nowhere
103678 Posts |
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I should point out that the converse is false. As CRGreathouse has pointed out already,
22n-1 == 2 (mod n) for, e.g. n = 6, 15, 66, 85, 91, 186 whereas 2n =/= 2 (mod n) in these cases. So it is easier for composites to satisfy the OP's "primality" criterion than it is to satisfy 2n == 2 (mod n) |
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#6 | |
May 2016
2·34 Posts |
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#7 |
Aug 2006
2·29·103 Posts |
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It should fail only for 2-pseudoprimes and certain even numbers, the primes should all be ok.
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#8 |
May 2016
101000102 Posts |
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#9 | |||
Feb 2017
Nowhere
43·101 Posts |
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Quote:
Your criterion identifies more composite numbers as primes than the "Chinese hypothesis," which only errs at composite base-2 pseudoprimes. The converse implication of your claim, Quote:
If p is a prime number, then 2p−1*2p mod p = 2. This may be directly verified for p = 2. For primes p > 2, it is a consequence of "Fermat's little Theorem." Last fiddled with by Dr Sardonicus on 2018-04-05 at 16:56 |
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#10 |
"Serge"
Mar 2008
Phi(4,2^7658614+1)/2
22·2,333 Posts |
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#11 | |
May 2016
2428 Posts |
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