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#1 |
"Bob Silverman"
Nov 2003
North of Boston
23·3·311 Posts |
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And some excellent side reading if people are interested:
http://www.de.ufpe.br/~toom/my-artic...c/ARUSSIAN.PDF |
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#2 | |
I moo ablest echo power!
May 2013
1,801 Posts |
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http://ww2.kqed.org/mindshift/2012/1...tern-cultures/ |
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#3 | |
May 2011
Orange Park, FL
2×3×151 Posts |
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I could do the 0.9999 problem, but not the others. At this late date I will not frustrate myself by attempting to join the discussion group. |
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#4 | |
"William"
May 2003
New Haven
22×593 Posts |
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Would PMs or email instead of threads be preferred? That avoids the problem of reading other people's answers instead of figuring it out for yourself. If there is interest, then I also suggest that the professor (Bob) recruit some "teaching assistants" to handle these threads. I'll be mostly offline for the next two weeks, but volunteer to assist to the extent my limited access permits. |
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#5 | |||
"Gang aft agley"
Sep 2002
2×1,877 Posts |
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Quote:
Richard Feynman on education in Brazil From Surely You’re Joking, Mr. Feynman!: Quote:
Last fiddled with by only_human on 2015-11-12 at 20:07 |
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#6 | ||
Aug 2002
100001001001012 Posts |
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#7 | ||
∂2ω=0
Sep 2002
República de California
101101110110112 Posts |
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Proof A: The distance d between the n-term (n finite) expansion and 1 is d = 10^(-n), which --> 0 as n --> oo, thus in the limit, 0.999... = 1. Proof B: Using the same notation as Proof A, the number of distinct real points in the length-d interval separating the n-term expansion and 1 is infinite (in fact uncountably so). Incrementing n by 1 cuts the distance by a factor of 10, but the number of distinct reals in the new smaller interval is still uncountably infinite. Thus no matter how large we take n, there remains an uncountably infinite number of points separating the point corresponding to the resulting expansion from 1, hence 0.999... != 1. Wikipedia describes the difficulties involved in such problems: Quote:
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#8 |
Undefined
"The unspeakable one"
Jun 2006
My evil lair
2·3·1,093 Posts |
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1/3 = 0.33333...
2/3 = 0.66666... 3/3 = 0.99999... |
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#9 |
∂2ω=0
Sep 2002
República de California
3×7×13×43 Posts |
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You also neglect to detail the many assumptions behind those '=' signs. Please provide a convincing refutation of my Proof B.
[Agree with wblipp that such 'sidetrack discussions' should probably be split off into separate threads - here we are veering out of the field on number theory as the subforum likely intends it to mean.] Last fiddled with by ewmayer on 2015-11-13 at 01:56 |
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#10 | |
Undefined
"The unspeakable one"
Jun 2006
My evil lair
2·3·1,093 Posts |
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Last fiddled with by retina on 2015-11-13 at 02:50 |
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#11 |
"Carl Darby"
Oct 2012
Spring Mountains, Nevada
31510 Posts |
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Proof B seems to depend on the mistaken assumption that an uncountable set cannot be written as a countable union of uncountable sets.
As for the TDH problem, if you think about it for a minute, you will realize that if T,D, and H represent times to finish the job, then T + D =2, T + H =3, and D + H = 4 make no sense. In Toom's defense, i think this was what he wanted the student to realize. Last fiddled with by owftheevil on 2015-11-13 at 02:46 |
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