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#1 |
"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
41·59 Posts |
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Hi all,
Is there a proof that primes p such that Mod (p,q) = Mod (x,q) For any given prime q and integer x such that 0 < x < q Are Infinity many? For example for q = 5 and x = 3 Is it provable that the set of primes p: 13, 23, 43, ... Is infinity large. Thank you for any reference you may provide. |
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#2 |
Dec 2012
The Netherlands
2·3·307 Posts |
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This may help:
https://primes.utm.edu/notes/Dirichlet.html I think it is also worth experimenting with specific numbers to get a feel for this type of problem (and not just with q prime). For example:
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#3 |
"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
97316 Posts |
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Much obliged Nick,
![]() For the record the Wikipedia entry: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diri...c_progressions |
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#4 |
"Serge"
Mar 2008
San Diego, Calif.
2×3×1,733 Posts |
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#5 |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dartmouth NS
5×13×131 Posts |
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http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Modular...gFunction.html is indirectly related.
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#6 |
Romulan Interpreter
"name field"
Jun 2011
Thailand
2×5,179 Posts |
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#7 |
"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
97316 Posts |
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To much meat on those links.
Thank you Gents both. Currently I am exhausted from my day job. Digestion will have to wait for another day if at all possible. The straight forward proof seems way too advanced. But Google seems to indicate there has been searches for an "elementary" proof. Will see if that's easier on the mind. Thank you for all the replies. |
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