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Old 2005-05-10, 19:47   #133
T.Rex
 
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Feb 2004
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Thanks for your help, ewmeyer and philmoore.
Quote:
Originally Posted by ewmayer
I think what is generally referred to as the Pe'pin test should more properly be referred to as the Pe'pin/Euler test.
Page 101 of his book, Williams says: "Thus, the test that we today call Pépin's test is actually Proth's test with a proof supplied by Lucas" (because Proth mentionned that 3 can be used instead of 5, that Pépin used.) (and because Lucas pointed out that the proof of sufficiency of Pépin's test followed from his Fundation theorem).
So, it should be: "Euler/Lucas/Pépins/Proth's Test" ! ELPPT !
Tony
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