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#1 |
May 2004
13C16 Posts |
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Non-factors of Fermat Numbers:
1) No prime number generated by 2 exp (2n + 1) + 1 can be a factor of any Fermat Number 2 ) prime numbers not generated by 2exp n + 1 also cannot be factors Any other sets? ( to be contd) Devaraj |
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#2 | |
Bronze Medalist
Jan 2004
Mumbai,India
22·33·19 Posts |
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![]() ![]() Mally ![]() |
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#3 |
Sep 2002
2·331 Posts |
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2exp n + 1 is that 2^n + 1 ? ( one plus 2 to the nth power)
What is n ? Is it any integer large enough to allow 2^n + 1 to be a factor ? Is 2 ) equivalent to: only prime numbers 2^n + 1 can be factors of fermat numbers ? IE Binary numbers of the form 101 1001 10001 |
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#4 |
May 2004
13C16 Posts |
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Reply to Moderator: yes to the first query.
Also n is any positive integer Reply to "Mally": These are corallaries of my theorem: "A Generalisation of Fermat's Theorem" on my site: www.crorepatibaniye.com/failurefunctions Devaraj |
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#5 |
Sep 2002
10100101102 Posts |
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concerning point 2)
if I correctly understand what you wrote, then it isn't correct. Counter example Fermat5 = 2^(2^5) + 1 = 2^32 + 1 = 4294967297 = 100000000000000000000000000000001 (binary) the possible factors are of the form k*(2^7) + 1 with k >= 0 with k = 0 factor = 1 with k = 5 factor = 5*(2^7) + 1 = 5*128 + 1 = 641 = 1010000001 641 is prime, is a factor of Fermat5, isn't 2^n + 1 |
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#6 |
May 2004
22·79 Posts |
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To the moderator:
641 is a factor of F5 i.e. 2^2^5 + 1; it is not a factor of 2^(2n + 1) + 1. Hope this clarifies the matter. Devaraj |
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#7 | |
"Bob Silverman"
Nov 2003
North of Boston
2×33×139 Posts |
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Allow me to clarify this matter. I mean no disrespect, but the original poster would greatly benefit from actually READING about this subject. Any primitive prime factor of 2^k+1, must equal 1 mod 2k. Period. Primitive means that it does not divide 2^m+1 for any m < k. e.g. 11 is a primitive prime factor of 2^5+1. It is also a prime factor of (say) 2^15+1, but it is not a primitive prime factor. For Fermat numbers, when k = 2^n (say) we can say a little bit more because 2 is a primitive root. In this case, we have that any prime factor is 1 mod 4k. Any two different Fermat numbers are also relatively prime. Now can we put the random speculations to rest???? |
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#8 |
May 2004
22·79 Posts |
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Thank you for further clarification, Dr. Silverman.,
Devaraj Last fiddled with by devarajkandadai on 2004-07-27 at 04:13 |
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#9 | |
"Bob Silverman"
Nov 2003
North of Boston
2·33·139 Posts |
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"because 2 is a primitive root. " should clearly have been: because 2 is a quadratic residue. For those who are interested, here is a full proof. Assume 2^2^n + 1 = 0 mod p Then 2^2^n = -1 mod p 2^2^(n+1) = 1 mod p By Lagrange's Thm, the order of any element must divide the order of the group. The order of the group is p-1, hence 2^(n+1) | p - 1 and therefore p = k* 2^(n+1) + 1 for some k. But we can say more. Note that for n > 1, we also have p = 1 mod 8. By quadratic reciprocity 2 is a quadratic residue. From Euler's criteria we then obtain: 2^ ((p-1)/2) = 1 mod p and hence (2^(n+1)) | (p-1)/2. This last result yields p = k^2^(n+2) + 1. Euler's criterion says that a^((p-1)/2) = 1 or -1 mod p depending on whether a is (resp.) a residue or non-residue. |
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