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#1 |
May 2004
22·79 Posts |
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The Devaraj-Riemann zeta function is defined as follows:
Sigma(zeta(s) + n)^-s, n going from 1 to infinity. When zeta(s) equals zero, we get the Riemann zeta function. Q: Can this function be zero even if zeta(s) is not zero? A.K.Devaraj |
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#2 |
∂2ω=0
Sep 2002
República de California
1173510 Posts |
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I like the humble naming convention best.
![]() Last fiddled with by ewmayer on 2007-12-20 at 18:18 |
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#3 | |
Feb 2005
11·23 Posts |
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See http://mathworld.wolfram.com/HurwitzZetaFunction.html |
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#4 |
∂2ω=0
Sep 2002
República de California
5·2,347 Posts |
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#5 |
Dec 2003
Hopefully Near M48
2·3·293 Posts |
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All special cases of the jinydu function:
f(a) = b where a is some element of a set A and b is some element of a set B ![]() But more seriously, I don't know whether or not that function has any zeroes, other than the Riemann Zeta function's zeros. Mathematica isn't of much help because it can't evaluate the function for Last fiddled with by jinydu on 2007-12-20 at 21:44 |
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