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Old 2006-07-21, 21:15   #15
Citrix
 
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Jun 2003

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Your proof is interesting, but flawed.

1=(b-1)*b^((p_i-1)*c-1) mod p_i (for some positive integer c)

C does not exist for all p_i. Hence these p_i can form the covering set.
Your proof if it was correct says that all b-1*b^n-+1 numbers are prime. Which is not true.
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