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Old 2006-01-25, 23:49   #9
John Renze
 
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Nov 2005

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What does "two randomly chosen integers" mean? You can't put a uniform distribution on the entire set of integers, so there is some interpretation involved.

Specifically, you seem to be using the following heuristic: Let $n$ be an random integer and $p$ be a prime. Then $Pr(p | n) = 1/p$.

This is perfectly sensible and number theorists use this kind of reasoning all the time. I was wondering, though, how you formulate this precisely,.
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