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Old 2021-05-08, 13:46   #5
Charles Kusniec
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Aug 2020

68 Posts

Actually, we have 2 trivialities for n. We have n=0 and n=1 as trivialities. I agree with what you said. What I am complementing is that there is another way to do this proof and in it we have to use the sum of 2 squares theorem. When we do the proof by this second way, we find a very interesting equality.
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