Quote:
Originally Posted by Blackadder
Is that rhetorical? I really should get back into my math books.
Special as in: why are we calculating for 2^{p}1 and not 2^{p}2 as well. I guess the latter can't be prime?

no number divisible by a number other than 1 or itself is prime 2
^{p}2 = 2(2
^{p1}1) therefore is divisible by 2 except when p1 = 1 and therefore p=2  2
^{p1}1 = 1